They think that they are essentially citing ORIGINAL English Common Law that existed prior to the establishment of the US. A lot of what they argue would have made sense in the time before there was a US Constitution that changed/replaced a lot of that and then the centuries of the country progressing into the future and all the changes that entails.
They think that they are essentially citing ORIGINAL English Common Law that existed prior to the establishment of the US. A lot of what they argue would have made sense in the time before there was a US Constitution that changed/replaced a lot of that and then the centuries of the country progressing into the future and all the changes that entails.
Wouldn’t that make them British citizens then?
(I know I’m uselessly trying to bring logic into this)
As a French I’m sorry but they’re all yours
As a US corporate owned entity. I have nothing against the French.
Aww. Now kiss and make an international treaty, you two