I’m thinking that no, it doesn’t. Which begs the question of why we do it? Is it a psychological thing?

  • morphballganon@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    6
    ·
    edit-2
    3 months ago

    I’m thinking that no, it doesn’t.

    You can literally see the difference (not to mention feel it). The amount of steam coming off the food after blowing on it is less.

    Also, you’re misusing the phrase “begs the question.” It doesn’t mean “leads me to a question.”

    • SbisasCostlyTurnover@feddit.ukOP
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      4
      ·
      3 months ago

      You’re right. But in the interest of no stupid questions I thought I’d ask anyway, because…you know, what if?.

      And thanks for the grammar lesson, I didn’t ask for that one but I’ll take it on board.

    • ivanafterall@kbin.social
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      2
      arrow-down
      1
      ·
      edit-2
      3 months ago

      It doesn’t mean “leads me to a question."

      It does, though. In fact, that’s considered the primary definition, per Merriam-Webster.

      Begging the question means “to elicit a specific question as a reaction or response,” and can often be replaced with “a question that begs to be answered.” However, a lesser used and more formal definition is “to ignore a question under the assumption it has already been answered.” The phrase itself comes from a translation of an Aristotelian phrase rendered as “beg the question” but meaning “assume the conclusion.”

      It’s literally a moot point, all over again.

      • morphballganon@lemmy.world
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        3
        arrow-down
        1
        ·
        3 months ago

        That’s a case of a dictionary caving to a misuse being so common that it becomes the new norm. If a dictionary claimed “supposively” was an acceptable spelling of supposedly, would that make it correct?

        • dohpaz42@lemmy.world
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          2
          arrow-down
          1
          ·
          3 months ago

          Yes. That’s exactly what dictionaries do. Where else would we go for DEFINITIVE answers?

          • morphballganon@lemmy.world
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            2
            arrow-down
            2
            ·
            3 months ago

            So, someone could release their own dictionary and thus become a DEFINITIVE authority on language?

            Dictionaries are supposed to reflect the official lexicon.

            At what point does slang enter the official lexicon?

            • dohpaz42@lemmy.world
              link
              fedilink
              English
              arrow-up
              2
              arrow-down
              1
              ·
              3 months ago

              Wow. I’m not sure if you’re serious or trolling.

              But to answer your question, someone did release their own dictionary… and, thus, became a definitive authority on language… in 1847. That someone (actually someones) were the Merriam brothers. They then bought a license from another someone named Webster. Maybe you’ve heard of them.

              If you are serious, you are digging pretty damn deep trying to make your point. If you’re not careful, you might come out on the other side of the world.

                • subignition@fedia.io
                  link
                  fedilink
                  arrow-up
                  3
                  arrow-down
                  2
                  ·
                  3 months ago

                  Dictionaries are descriptive, not prescriptive; when meanings get changed by popular usage, so too do dictionaries follow.

                  Terribly sorry you’re learning this so late in life. Might have saved yourself some frustration otherwise.