• bratorange@feddit.de
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    7 months ago

    But I think this is only about wages right? It doesn’t take into account growth in net worth based on shares, does it?

      • bratorange@feddit.de
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        6 months ago

        Not sure about this. However if this was the case, income would be a pretty useless term in terms of describing financial inequality, as a lot of wealth gained would be excluded by this definition.