The Illinois Supreme Court found the state’s assault weapons ban constitutional. It was passed after the Highland Park shooting last year.
The Illinois Supreme Court found the state’s assault weapons ban constitutional. It was passed after the Highland Park shooting last year.
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The 2nd Amendment also says “well-regulated,” but folks sure seem to forget about that bit, huh.
It’s only been in the last 50 years or so that people considered that phrase meaningless. It used to mean exactly what it said. Thank the NRA for being a industry-pushing, Russia-money-taking scumbag.
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Interesting. We have the National Guard now to fill the role of militia, which we know because it was created by the Militia Act. Pretty clear intent on that one.
Using the definition at the time, it appears that there’s actually not a right for any random person to have a gun. If you want one, join the well-regulated militia.
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Can you share a source? I’m very surprised to hear that they specified well-regulated militia when they just meant basically everyone.
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You don’t even know what that means. It means “regularized”, as in well trained and supplied. The idea was that having the populace be well armed would make it easier to muster a defense force in case of a conflict. “Because the state needs a well supplied and trained military force to remain free, the people have the right to own and carry armaments without restriction” would be the correct transliteration using the vocabulary of today.
We have a standing army now, so yeah. About that. It’s an outdated amendment that only recently has been interpreted as zero restrictions.
It was interpreted as having 0 restrictions for 150 years.
You might find it outdated and useless, repeal it then.
You do not know what you are talking about, or the laws around it and the interpretations of it changed in the 80s.
I will not argue with y’all gun weirdos. Have a lovely day.
What does gun crime mean in this context?
Does it mean crimes committed with a gun?
Does it mean violations of gun laws? If so, is that normalized with respect to the stricter restrictions in those states?
Is it normalized with respect to total population? With respect to population type (rural versus urban)?
Is it possible that the states with more restrictions have done so because of the rates of those crimes?
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If you are going to make an argument of correlation equaling causation, you should probably at least establish the order of operations so your argument is clear.
Saying “Chicago has the most restrictive gun laws” is something I’ve heard passed around on FB before. It doesn’t surprise me that gang violence and random gun violence happens in more populated areas, and that cities and densely populated states would have crime and laws to match. But I’ve never seen evidence that Chicago is an outlier for gun laws as a city. I mean, the post here suggests that the “assault weapons ban” is new, so clearly the state hadn’t made any laws against semi-auto firearms, large calibre firearms, or large capacity mags until now (recently).
maybe you’ve never been to a city, or don’t understand what it’s like to live around a lot of people
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Aaaaand there’s the dog whistle.
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i know there are cowards out there who need to hide in the country with their guns, it’s okay son… there is still life in the city in spite of your fear… there’s even real people in the city who get along and everything, you should see it…
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and none of that has anything to do with assault weapons in Illinois… do you comprehend that?
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